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Coding
Recommendations - Feature
Article 04/15/00
Procedure Practice
Using ICD-9-CM and CPT-4, assign codes for diagnoses and
procedure(s) described in the discharge summaries below.
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Case Summary 1
A 40-year-old woman was admitted
to the hospital after her 34-week prenatal office
exam revealed 3+ proteinuria, 2+ edema of both lower
legs, and an elevated blood pressure of 170/110.
The patient had no known history of hypertension
in the past. In the office, the patient complained
of headache and blurred vision. As she was being
wheeled to the obstetrical unit, the patient suffered
a generalized tonic-clonic convulsion. The patient
was treated for her eclampsia and discharged home
to strict bedrest and close follow-up care.
Case Summary 2
A 10-year-old boy with a
known history of frequent epileptic absence episodes
was seen in the emergency department after sustaining
contusions to his reight knee and shin in a fall
from his bike. He was wearing his helmet. His mom
witnessed the accident and thought that he may have
had an attack as he was riding. Exam revealed intact
mentation in the emergency department, and he stated
that he "thought" he remembered losing
his balance on a sandy patch in his driveway. His
head and neurologic exams were entirely normal without
any postictal signs, and x-ray of his right leg
did not reveal any fractures. His contusions were
cleaned up and he was discharged home in good condition.
I am uncertain if this child experienced a seizure
with his fall, therefore I advised his mom to follow
up with their pediatric neurologist.
Case Summary 3
A 37-year-old man was admitted
to the hospital following a witnessed grand mal
seizure at home. A second seizure occurred en route
to the hospital in the ambulance. Past medical history
revealed no prior seizure disorder in this patient.
Neurologic work-up was entirely negative,
including a negative CT and EEG. A lumbar puncture
was negative, as was sepsis work-up. Interestingly,
the patient had recently begun taking Prilosec for
GERD. After consulting with his internist, consensus
was that the seizures were secondary to Prilosec
therapy and this medication was stopped. The patient
was placed on Dilantin and further seizures did
not occur during his hospitalization. He was discharged
home in satisfactory condition 72 hours after admission.
He will take Propulcid for his reflux disease and
Dilantin 400 mg daily for his seizures. He has been
instructed to return to the office in 5 days for
a Dilantin blood level. He knows that he cannot
drive for at least the next three months. This gentleman
was quite distressed with this new diagnosis; however,
I explained to him that, over the next several weeks,
we would be working to eliminate all other causes
for his seizures, and that his prognosis was extremely
positive.
Case Summary 4
A 22-year-old man was admitted
following repeated temporal lobe seizures. History
revealed that the patient had had 17 seizures within
the 24 hours prior to admission. He has had seizures
since the age of 14, previously well-controlled
with no break-through episodes on Phenobarbital.
Blood levels of Phenobarbital indicated an acceptable
therapeutic level of 30; however, while in the hospital,
the patient continued so seize at least once per
hour. Because of the intractability of his epilepsy,
it was recommended that the patient be transferred
to another facility where he could obtain neurology
services. He and his family concurred and he was
transferred emergently to the neurology unit of
the Regional Health Center.
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Using the examples above,
do your own coding and then compare it with our
recommendations.
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